Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 23.06.2025 03:06
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why does the God of the Bible condemn homosexual acts?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Ask Ethan: What are the "first stars" in the Universe? - Big Think
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Greetings from Warsaw, Poland, where the flags are flying ahead of a key election - NPR
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.